Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks.
What make a good souvenir?
On my desk at home, I have a collection of souvenirs; objects that remind me of places I’ve visited and important events in my life. These objects include a model boat that I saw being carved from a piece of wood on a Caribbean island, a piece of lava that emerged hot from a volcano in the year I was born, and a shell (1) _____ on my favourite childhood beach.
Unlike everything else, from which memory and detail fades, it is as if the longer you hold on to certain objects, the (2) ________ their associations with the past become, and the sharper the recollections that gather around them. They are, (3) ________, real souvenirs, encapsulations not only of the place, but of your time in the place. But these days, the term “real souvenirs” sounds like a contradiction in terms, and this is because the objects sold to tourists as souvenirs are often cheap mass-produced imports that have nothing to do with the place at all.
It’s often the (4) _____ that the best souvenirs, like my shell, are found rather than purchased, but browsing for souvenirs can also be a fun holiday activity. But if you are buying souvenirs on holiday this summer, make sure they (5) ________ the reality test. A good souvenir is not just made in the area where it is bought, it also says something about the culture of that area. It is something made by local people using sustainable local materials, and because you are effectively supporting the local economy, it shouldn’t come too cheap, either.
Question 1.
A. come across B. found out
C. picked up D. bumped into
Question 2.
A. larger B. wider
C. harder D. greater
Question 3.
A. therefore B. whereas
C. however D. otherwise
Question 4.
A. point B. case
C. fact D. truth
Question 5.
A. pass B. win
C. take D. beat
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 6. Many countries share the view that drastic measures must be taken to stop the pollution of the seas.
A. The pollution of the seas can only be prevented provided that many countries follow the same policy.
B. By putting into practice a series of precaution it is generally believed that the pollution of the seas will be prevented.
C. The sea will, it seems, continue to be polluted unless this agreement is accepted by a majority of the countries.
D. A lot of countries agree that it is essential to take strong action to put an end to the pollution of the sea.
Question 7. As Keanu Reeves became more famous, it was more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters.
A. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.
B. The more Keanu Reeves became famous, the more difficult for him it was to avoid newspaper reporters.
C. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult for him to avoid newspaper reporters it was.
D. The more famous Keanu Reeves became, the more difficult it was for him to avoid newspaper reporters.
Question 8. Much as George loved travelling in Asia, he decided not to go to Iraq because of his fears of terrorism.
A. As Iraq had become a high-risk terrorism spot, George, who normally loved Asia, was afraid to go there.
B. Even though George liked touring Asia very much, he was afraid of terrorism in Iraq, so he chose not to go there.
C. Although George liked touring Asia, ever since the threat of terrorism started, he hadn’t been to Iraq.
D. George would have gone to Iraq if he hadn’t been scared of terrorism so much because Asia was his favorite travel spot.
Question 9. The man in that painting reminds me of my uncle.
A. There are some likeness between my uncle and the man in that painting.
B. My uncle and the man in that painting were very alike.
C. The man in that painting bears a strong resemblance to my uncle.
D. In that painting the man has something similar to my uncle.
Question 10. She never lets her daughter participate in an activity unless it is under the supervision of an adult.
A. The only activities in which she allows her daughter to take part are those watched over by a grown-up.
B. If an older person is in attendance, she usually agrees to her daughter’s participation in activities.
C. She always takes her daughter to activities which are supervised by grown-ups.
D. As long as she herself is present at the activity, she permits her daughter to join in.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In 1752, Benjamin Franklin made his textbook experiment with a brass key and a silk kite that he flew in a thunderstorm to prove that lightning and electricity are the same thing. In 1920, a kite-flying championship for families and individuals was held in London. These two seemingly unrelated events underscore the fact that kites can be flown for both pleasure and scientific purposes. For example, in the 1800s weather bureaus flew kites to record temperature and humidity at certain altitudes. On one occasion, ten kites were strung together and flown at a height of four miles to lift men and carry cameras aloft.
The kite’s ability to fly depends on its construction and the way that its line is attached. The familiar diamond - shaped kite flies when its covered face is aligned against the wind flow. The line attached to the nose of the kite pulls it into the wind, thus creating the necessary angle for the lift force. If the kite’s construction and the angle of the air stream are correct, the kite will encounter greater pressure against its face and lower pressure against its back. The difference in the pressure creates a lift that causes the kite to rise until it hangs level from its bridle. Its angle against the wind should be sufficiently large or small to create maximum lift to overcome both drag and gravity. The towing point to which the line is attached is important because it sets the kite’s angle relative to the air flow. Although the kite must be headed up and into the wind with a velocity of 8 to 20 miles per hour, it can maintain its position through a tail, a rudder, a keel, vents, or tassels.
Question 11. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. What makes kites stay up in the air.
B. How kites can be utilized.
C. What parts kites consist of.
D. Why kites are were spurned.
Question 12. The word “aloft” in the reading passage is closet in meaning to _____.
A. for the analysis
B. in the flood
C. in flight
D. for amusement
Question 13. According to the passage, the kite flies when its nose is ______.
A. pointed away from the ground
B. balanced with the tail
C. pointed into the wind flow
D. aligned parallel to the wind flow
Question 14. What is necessary condition for the kite to fly?
A. The kite must be sufficiently strong to withstand great pressure.
B. The kite must be diamond-shaped, and the wind of a certain velocity.
C. The pressure against its back must be lower than the pressure against its face.
D. The pressure of the air flow must be lower than the weight of the kite.
Question 15. According to the passage, the line of the kites is important because it _____.
A. lifts the kite’s cover and frame into the air space
B. contributes to the shape of the kite and extends it
C. conveys the direction of the wind and the air flow
D. determines the angle between the kite and the air flow
Question 16. The phrase “headed up” in the passage is closet in meaning to ______.
A. diverted B. directed
C. drafted D. dropped
Question 17. The paragraph following the passage most would likely discuss _____.
A. fiberglass kites flown in competition
B. the cords and wires needed for kite flying
C. elements of kite design and composition
D. bowed kites curved on their faces
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question.
Question 18. As the years passed, Joe’s memories of his terrible experience _____ away, and he began to lead a normal life again.
A. got B. backed
C. faded D. passed
Question 19. People should eat _____ and do _____ to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. less and less fat / the more exercise
B. less fat / more exercise
C. the less fat / the more exercise
D. the lease fat / the most exercise
Question 20. We all seem to have a different opinion, so let’s Joey decide, ___________?
A. shall we B. do we
C. are we D. will we
Question 21. I suppose I found it hard at my new school because I just _____ to the situation.
A. wasn’t used
B. wasn’t getting used
C. used not
D. didn’t use
Question 22. In no way ______ that people will be prevented from organizing peaceful protests.
A. this law means
B. means this law
C. this law does mean
D. dose this law mean
Question 23. It’s about time Mrs. Richard apologized to me _____ me a gossip in front of everybody.
A. to have called
B. that she called
C. of calling
D. for having called
Question 24. He looked at me as if I _____ from the moon.
A. had just landed
B. have just landed
C. would land
D. would have landed
Question 25. The elaborate bridal costumes of the coastal Indians are ____ from mother to daughter.
A. put through
B. taken after
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C. parted with
D. handed down
Question 26. I can’t believe that Sabina is going to ______ on that parachute jump. Of course, she’s doing it for charity.
A. bear a charmed life
B. raise the alarm
C. risk life and limb
D. take sensible precautions
Question 27. Da Vinci’s Mona Lisa is _____; if it was destroyed no amount of money could ever replace it.
A. worthless
B. valueless
C. priceless
D. invaluable
Question 28. Although he _____ to Ernest Hemingway, I think his books are unique.
A. often has been compared
B. has often compared
C. has often been compared
D. has been often comparing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 29. Paris is the ideal place to learn French; it’s a beautiful and hospitable city with Institutions for high quality linguistic teaching.
A. noticeable
B. friendly
C. affectionate
D. natural
Question 30. The Extension Program first established in 1873 at Cambridge University has successfully withstood changing popular trends.
A. sponsored B. endured
C. stabilized in D. extended
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 31.
A. priority B. habitat
C. protection D. essential
Question 32.
A. marvelous B. assistance
C. armchair D. argument
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 33. Slang can be defined as a set of lexical, grammatical, and phonological regularities used in informal speech.
A. informative
B. official
C. situational
D. casual
Question 34. The emergence of supersonic travel opened new horizons for the military, tourism, and commerce.
A. simplicity
B. disappearance
C. urgency
D. profitability
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 35.
A. intellectual B. philosopher
C. discriminate D. enlightenment
Question 36.
A. undergraduate B. administrative
C. disadvantage D. agricultural
Question 37.
A. emergency B. activity
C. vulnerable D. initiative
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The official residence of the president of the United States is the White House, located at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue, in Washington, D.C. The Commissioners of the District of Columbia held a meeting in 1792 and decided to hold a contest for the best design for the Presidential House. James Hoban, an architect born in Ireland, was the winner. His bid for the construction of the mansion asked for $200,000, but the final cost of the building came to twice that amount. The work on the project began during the same year, and the grounds of approximately one and a half miles west of the Capitol Hill were chosen by Major Pierre-Charles L’Enfant, who was in charge of city planning. However, the construction continued for several more years, and George Washington had stepped down as president before the building was habitable. When John Adams, the second president of the United States and his wife Abigail moved in 1800, only six rooms had been completed.
The grey sandstone walls of the house were painted white during construction, and the color of the paint gave the building its name. The building was burned on August 24, 1814, and James Hoban reconstructed the house for President James Monroe and his family, who moved there in 1817. The north portico was added to the building in 1829, water pipes were installed in 1833, gas lighting in 1848, and electricity in 1891. In 1948, inspectors announced that the building was so dilapidated that it was beyond repair and suggested that it was cheaper to construct a new one than repair the existing dwelling. However, the national sentiment was to keep the original form intact, and Congress appropriated $5.4 million dollars for repairs. In 1961, Jacqueline Kennedy launched a program to redecorate the rooms and appointed a Fine Arts Committee to make choices of furnishing and colors.
The house of the president accords its residents a great deal of space. The living quarters contain 107 rooms, 40 corridors, and 19 baths. The White House contains a doctor’s suite, a dentist’s office, a large solarium, a broadcasting room, and a two-floor basement for storage and service rooms. The office in which the president works is not located in the White House, but in a separate building called the West Wing. The White House stands on 16 acres of parklike land and overlooks a broad lawn, flower gardens, and wood groves.
Question 38. The word “contest” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. hearing
B. concourse
C. computation
D. competition
Question 39. What does the passage imply about the cost of the White House construction?
A. It did not adhere to the original estimate.
B. It was proposed at the meeting of the commissioners.
C. It was not included in the architectural design.
D. It was considered excessive for the presidential home.
Question 40. The word “grounds” is closest in meaning to _____.
A. high ground B. site
C. several lots D. hills
Question 41. It can be inferred from the passage that _____.
A. George Washington contributed to the White House design
B. George Washington never lived in the White House
C. The White House was excluded from the city planning
D. George Washington often used the White House steps
Question 42. The author of the passage implies that the construction of the main White House building continued _____.
A. up to 1800
B. after 1800
C. until 1814
D. until 1792
Question 43. What can be inferred about the White House from the information in the second paragraph?
A. Running water was installed in the second half of the 19th century.
B. Each president added new features to the building’s conveniences.
C. Few changes occurred in the structure in the first half of the 20th century.
D. The building was modernized extensively during one decade.
Question 44. In line 20, the word “launched” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. stopped B. worked
C. began D. requested
Question 45. The passage mentions all of the following White House premises EXCEPT _____.
A. hallways B. kitchen
C. medical offices D. storage rooms
Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions.
Question 46. Will you have time for some sightseeing?
A. No, I’m afraid not. I’ve got to run to the airport right after the meeting.
B. Yes, I go to the gym and I do a bit of jogging, but only to keep fit. How about you?
C. Yes, it’s fantastic. Great location & a comfortable bed – that’s all you need, isn’t it?
D. No, I’ve been here before on business. It’s a great city.
Question 46. I’m just here to read for fun. I can’t believe I’ve gone this long without reading The Catcher in the Rye.
A. Oh, so long. And don’t take it seriously.
B. I love that book. Some people think it’s overrated, but completely disagree.
C. It really was! I knew you looked familiar.
D. Ah, the American Pageant. That film taught me everything I needed to know about American History.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 48. Some people believe that humans will never use away all the natural resources of our Earth.
A. never B. natural resources
C. use away D. believe that
Question 49. Amelia Earhart, the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic, disappeared on June 1937 while attempting to fly around the world.
A. the Atlantic B. on
C. to fly solo D. attempting
Question 50. Owing to their superior skill, highly competitive athletes have been known to win contests and break records even when suffered from injuries, physical disorders, and infections.
A. when suffered
B. highly competitive
C. have been known
D. Owing to
| 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 |
| C | D | A | B | A |
| 6 | 7 | 8 | 9 | 10 |
| D | D | B | C | A |
| 11 | 12 | 13 | 14 | 15 |
| A | C | C | C | D |
| 16 | 17 | 18 | 19 | 20 |
| B | C | C | B | A |
| 21 | 22 | 23 | 24 | 25 |
| A | D | D | A | D |
| 26 | 27 | 28 | 29 | 30 |
| C | C | C | B | B |
| 31 | 32 | 33 | 34 | 35 |
| D | B | B | B | A |
| 36 | 37 | 38 | 39 | 40 |
| B | C | D | A | B |
| 41 | 42 | 43 | 44 | 45 |
| B | C | C | C | B |
| 46 | 47 | 48 | 49 | 50 |
| A | B | C | B | A |